→ FCOM VOL 2 (Type Rating) → Start Learning / Download MP3 Flashcards

Question		Answer
What are OEB Immediate Actions? start learning		Actions identified in an Operations Engineering Bulletin that must be memorized and immediately applied without referring to the OEB.
When do MMEL requirements cease to apply? start learning		After the thrust levers are advanced at the start of takeoff.
When may a tripped circuit breaker normally be reset or cycled in flight? start learning		Only when an explicit FCOM or QRH procedure specifies that action.
Up to what altitude is the basic A220 approved for flight in icing conditions? start learning		Up to 35,000 ft.
What is the basic maximum landing approach-path angle in Chapter 2? start learning		3.5 degrees
What is the A220 VMO at and below 8,000 ft? start learning		300 KIAS.
What is the A220 high-altitude maximum operating Mach number? start learning		Mach 0.82.
What are the A220 VFE values for FLAP 1 through FLAP 5? start learning		FLAP 1: 230 KIAS; FLAP 2: 210 KIAS; FLAP 3: 210 KIAS; FLAP 4: 190 KIAS; FLAP 5: 170 KIAS.
What is the recommended turbulence penetration speed on the A220? start learning		265 KIAS at or below 10,000 ft, or 280 KIAS above 10,000 ft, or Mach 0.75, whichever is lower.
What is the A220 tire limit speed? start learning		195 knots ground speed.
What is the A220 maximum operating altitude? start learning		41,000 ft.
What are the maximum and minimum ambient temperatures approved for A220 takeoff and landing? start learning		Maximum +52.5°C and minimum -54°C.
What are the A220 maneuvering limit load factors with flaps up and flaps down? start learning		Flaps up: -1.0 g to +2.5 g; flaps down: 0.0 g to +2.0 g.
At what OAT does the A220 FCOM define cold-weather operations? start learning		At an OAT of 0°C or below.
When is engine operation prohibited in ground fog? start learning		When OAT is below -18°C.
When is takeoff prohibited in ground freezing fog? start learning		When ground freezing fog exists and visibility is less than 150 m (500 ft).
Is infrared deicing approved on the A220? start learning		No. Infrared deicing is prohibited.
How are in-flight icing conditions defined for A220 anti-ice limitations? start learning		TAT 10°C or below with visible moisture, except when SAT is -40°C or below.
What are the key A220 wing anti-ice limitations in flight? start learning		Do not hold in icing with flaps/slats extended; wing anti-ice must be OFF above 35,000 ft and must not be ON above TAT 15°C.
What action is required when A220 SLD icing is identified? start learning		Select wing and cowl anti-ice ON and leave the icing conditions; continued operation in SLD icing is prohibited.
What speed correction is required for a FLAP 5 approach and landing in icing conditions? start learning		Increase VREF, VAC, and VGA by 5 KIAS.
What source must be used for the A220 Smoke/Fire/Fumes procedure? start learning		The QRH.
What are the maximum wind limits for passenger and cargo door operation? start learning		40 kt for opening or closing and 65 kt with the door held open.
What are the A220 pressurization differential-pressure limits? start learning		Maximum positive 8.8 psid, maximum negative -0.5 psid, and no more than 1.0 psid at initial touchdown.
What is the minimum APU oil temperature for starting? start learning		-40°C.
What is the general maximum altitude for APU bleed-air extraction? start learning		23,000 ft, subject to the detailed pack, occupant, and temperature limitations.
What is the maximum altitude with A220 slats or flaps extended? start learning		20,000 ft.
What are the limitations for manually extended A220 flight spoilers? start learning		At least 300 ft AGL and at least VREF + 10 KIAS; MAX spoilers are for emergencies only.
What happens to fuel remaining in a tank when its fuel quantity indicator reads zero? start learning		It is considered unusable.
What is the minimum A220 fuel quantity for go-around? start learning		442 kg (975 lb) per wing under the specified level-aircraft and maximum 10-degree nose-up climb-attitude conditions.
What are the A220 bulk-fuel temperature limits relevant to takeoff? start learning		Maximum bulk fuel temperature is +52.5°C and takeoff is prohibited below -37°C.
What must be the status of manual fuel transfer and gravity crossflow for takeoff? start learning		They must be OFF.
When must NAV mode be selected for a localizer approach? start learning		Before the Final Approach Fix.
What speed mode must be used when flying VAPP in final landing configuration? start learning		MAN SPD.
Is QFE altimeter setting permitted on the A220? start learning		No. QFE operation is prohibited.
What is the minimum engine oil temperature for takeoff? start learning		49°C.
What cooling period is required after three engine start attempts or four minutes of continuous cranking? start learning		30 minutes.
How long should Ground Service Mode be OFF before aircraft power-up? start learning		At least one minute.
What must occur before electrical-system configuration changes are made during APU start? start learning		APU GEN must show online on the ELEC synoptic.
What must be done before another APU start attempt after an APU SHUTDOWN advisory during start? start learning		Set the APU switch to OFF.
When must the A220 Cabin Inspection be completed? start learning		Before the first flight of the day or after any crew change.
How is preliminary takeoff performance verified on the A220? start learning		PF and PM compute it independently and compare the results.
How many landing-gear pins must be accounted for onboard during Preflight? start learning		Three.
Which side should XFR be selected to during Preflight? start learning		The PF side.
What transponder and TCAS configuration is checked during Preflight? start learning		XPDR 1 selected, TCAS AUTO, and Flight ID inserted.
What altitude should be set in the FCP altitude window during Preflight? start learning		The initial expected clearance altitude.
What are the normal Preflight selections for AUTOBRAKE and NOSE STEER? start learning		AUTOBRAKE RTO and NOSE STEER OFF.
What ADS and IRS configuration must be confirmed during Preflight? start learning		On-side ADS and IRS, with no white or amber ADS/IRS messages on the FMA.
What confirms the rudder trim is correctly centered after its Preflight test? start learning		The rudder-trim triangle outline is green.
How is the A220 sidestick Preflight test performed? start learning		Both pilots test their sidesticks in turn and verify correct indication and normal return to neutral.
What oxygen-mask setting is selected after the Preflight test? start learning		100%.
When are TOGA, NAV and VNAV configured for departure? start learning		After the Preflight flow and FMS preparation are complete.
If HDG is expected after departure, which lateral mode must be used for takeoff? start learning		TO mode; HDG is selected later at a safe altitude.
How long should the crew wait after changing from external power to APU power before disconnecting external power? start learning		5 seconds.
What hydraulic-pump configuration is recommended for engine start with external electrical power in use? start learning		HYD 3A and 3B OFF for start, then AUTO after one or both engines are started.
Is single-engine taxi recommended on slippery or contaminated surfaces? start learning		No.
What hydraulic selection is recommended before flap movement or flight-control checks with only the right engine operating? and what with only the left engine operating? start learning		only right engine - PTU ON. only left engine - HYD 2B ON.
What must be true before moving the flight controls on the ground? start learning		All hydraulic systems must be powered.
What nose-steering selection is made after the Before Taxi flight-control check? start learning		NOSE STEER ON.
What must the stabilizer trim match before takeoff? start learning		The STAB TRIM value on the FMS PERF DEP page, within the green range.
What is the required rudder-trim condition before takeoff? start learning		Centered and green.
What performance data must be used when the brakes are not held until takeoff thrust is set? start learning		Rolling-takeoff performance.
Can a derated or FLEX takeoff be initiated without operative and armed autothrottle? start learning		No.
What is the initial engine thrust setting during a normal takeoff? start learning		Approximately 55% N1, stabilized on both engines.
By what speed must the thrust levers reach the takeoff setting? start learning		Before 60 kt ground speed.
What does the PM call at 80 KIAS when takeoff thrust is correctly set? start learning		EIGHTY KNOTS, THRUST SET.
What is the normal A220 takeoff rotation rate? start learning		3 to 5 degrees per second toward the PTM.
When is POSITIVE CLIMB called? start learning		When vertical speed is positive and radio altitude is increasing.
At what minimum height is the stabilized-climb mode-change gate? start learning		Not below 400 ft AGL.
Which engine may be started first using an external air source? start learning		Either engine.
What are the maximum bank angles in takeoff configuration with all engines operating and with one engine inoperative? start learning		30° AEO; 15° OEI.
When does automatic wing anti-ice operation satisfy the daily wing anti-ice check objective? start learning		After more than 3 consecutive minutes of automatic operation in flight without a failure.
What is Green Dot speed used for in holding? start learning		It is the recommended holding speed because it results in minimum fuel flow.
When destination QNH is displayed on the FMS PERF ARR page, what must be confirmed? start learning		ALT is below 10,000 ft.
What three conditions are recommended before selecting APPR for an ILS? start learning		Cleared for the approach, within 25 NM of the runway threshold, and LOC deviation one dot or less.
By when should VNAV be deselected during an approach without vertical guidance? start learning		At the latest 1 NM before the FAF in the detailed procedure.
When is the final FPA normally set when the FAF follows a level-off? start learning		0.3 NM before the FAF.
What lateral mode transition occurs after localizer capture on a LOC-only approach? start learning		Select NAV to transition from APPR LOC1/2 to LOC1/2.
What is the FDP? start learning		The point at or before the FAF from which a constant descent is defined.
When may autothrottle be re-selected after the thrust levers have been advanced to takeoff thrust? start learning		At or above 400 ft AGL.
What is the immediate response to unexpected autothrottle behavior in flight? start learning		Disconnect autothrottle and operate the thrust levers manually.
With one or both thrust reversers inoperative and RWYCC 2 or below, what should be considered first? start learning		Landing on a runway with RWYCC 3 or above.
What must be set before leaving circling MDA? start learning		The go-around altitude on the FCP.
What is the primary objective if visual references are lost during circling? start learning		Climb, remain within the protected circling area, and join the missed approach of the initial instrument approach.
What vertical path does an FMS visual approach provide? start learning		A 3-degree path to the runway threshold.
What lateral/vertical modes initially engage for a go-around below 200 ft? start learning		GA and (V)GA; above 200 ft FMS 1(2) is displayed when applicable.
How are FMA changes normally called? start learning		PF calls active modes without color and armed modes with color; PM responds CHECKED.
What are the standard control-transfer callouts when giving control? start learning		YOU HAVE CONTROL — I HAVE CONTROL.
What is the automatic reverse-thrust cutback speed? start learning		60 kt.
What must be confirmed before battery power is removed after APU shutdown? start learning		APU cooldown complete and APU RPM 0%.
Which three cues make GNSS position unreliable in the FCOM supplementary procedure? start learning		MAP position shift, magenta TAWS overlay, or FMS DR.
What is the LVO decision gate for an approach capability down-grade? start learning		1000 ft AAE; a down-grade below 1000 ft AAE requires a go-around.
At approximately what speed is autopilot disengagement recommended after autoland rollout? start learning		Approximately 30 kt, using the sidestick A/P DISC switch.
When is an aircraft considered cold-soaked? start learning		Ambient temperature at or below -7°C for more than 8 consecutive hours without cold-soak prevention.
When does holdover time start? start learning		At the start of the final application of deicing/anti-icing fluid.
What is the main difference between Type I and Type II/IV fluids? start learning		Type I has low viscosity and short holdover time; Type II/IV are thickened and provide longer anti-icing protection.
What should be done with slats/flaps during taxi-in after landing in icing contamination? start learning		Do not retract them until the areas have been inspected for contamination.
What is the A220 recognition cue for SLD icing? start learning		Ice accumulation on the cockpit side windows.
What are the immediate A220 reactive windshear recovery actions? start learning		MAX thrust; select TOGA; follow FD guidance smoothly and precisely; SPOILER RET; maintain configuration.
What is PM's primary role during windshear recovery? start learning		Monitor instruments and thrust, and call significant changes in airspeed, climb rate, pitch, thrust, and altitude.
What is the preferred aircraft-control philosophy in turbulence? start learning		Use AP and AT as the primary means of control when possible; do not make abrupt inputs to hold altitude.
Can the weather radar detect volcanic ash or dust? start learning		No.
What is the basic volcanic-ash escape strategy? start learning		Reduce thrust toward IDLE if altitude permits, reverse course if possible, select cowl and wing anti-ice ON, and monitor EGT.
Why must the OEI acceleration speed target initially be above current speed? start learning		To prevent unwanted autothrottle thrust reduction during level acceleration.
When is half-bank required during an OEI takeoff? start learning		For turns below acceleration altitude until speed is above V2 + 10.
What happens after an engine failure following NADP thrust reduction with AUTO/AT engaged? start learning		Thrust automatically returns to MCT.
What altitude is selected for emergency descent at or below 25,000 ft? start learning		15,000 ft or the lowest safe altitude, whichever is higher.
What speed limit applies during emergency descent with structural damage? start learning		Do not exceed the speed at which the damage occurred.
What pitch/bank values define an upset? start learning		More than 25° up, 10° down, or 45° bank; inappropriate airspeed can also qualify.
What speed is set at the single-engine go-around acceleration altitude? start learning		Green-dot speed.
When may flap be reduced during a balked landing? start learning		When ≥VGA, climbing, safely established, and there is no touchdown risk.
What must happen before external ground power is disconnected? start learning		EXT PWR must be selected and confirmed AVAIL.
Can donor-engine parameter oscillations during crossbleed start be normal? start learning		Yes, if parameters remain within operating limits.
What can happen if TOGA is selected within 2 min of an FMS reset? start learning		Missed-approach sequencing may be inhibited; SEQ AUTO may be required.
How are multiple non-normal ΔVREF corrections combined? start learning		Use the highest ΔVREF only; do not add them.
How are multiple abnormal landing-distance factors combined? start learning		Multiply factors for unrelated failures; use the highest factor for related failures.
What reference speed is used to calculate the baseline OLD before applying an abnormal factor? start learning		Normal VREF at the failure's reference flap configuration.
What is the ECL indication for an incomplete procedure that has been interrupted? start learning		STARTED.
What is the difference between PLAN TO LAND, LAND, and LAND IMMEDIATELY? start learning		Plan during checklist; land at PIC discretion without unnecessary extension; or land without delay, respectively.
What is the first priority in a CABIN ALT warning? start learning		Oxygen masks and crew communication; emergency descent if required.
What configuration and attitude distinguish ditching from normal landing? start learning		Gear UP, maximum available flaps, approximately 11° touchdown attitude.
What is the approximate touchdown attitude for an all-gear-UP forced landing? start learning		Approximately 5° pitch at VREF, with minimum vertical rate.
Who reads and who executes the A220 emergency evacuation ECL? start learning		Right-seat CPLT reads as PM; left-seat PLT performs commanded actions.
What does FIRE SYSTEM FAIL require? start learning		Land immediately at the nearest suitable airport.
What are the normal and LAND 2 runway-slope limits? start learning		Normal takeoff/landing: ±2%. LAND 2 autoland: maximum +0.8% upslope and -1.0% downslope.
What are the basic and optional LOT A220 tailwind limits? start learning		Basic FCOM: 10 kt for takeoff and landing. LOT selected C10400001, extending demonstrated capability to 15 kt under Supplement 18
What additional limitations apply to TAKEOFF with tailwind greater than 10 kt? start learning		Maximum 15 kt; comply with Supplement 18 engine-operating wind-zone chart. Zone 1: Normal/High Wind Takeoff as applicable; Zone 2: High Wind Takeoff required; Zone 3: takeoff prohibited.
Under which conditions is LANDING with tailwind greater than 10 kt permitted? start learning		Maximum 15 kt; FLAP 5 only; airport pressure altitude ≤6000 ft; no failed system requiring an OLD factor; required performance and operator approval.
How is OLD tailwind correction calculated for landing with more than 10 kt tailwind? start learning		Multiply the correction distance for a 10 kt tailwind by 1.5. Do not multiply the entire OLD by 1.5.
What are the A220 AP minimum engagement and use heights? start learning		Minimum engagement: 400 ft AGL. General minimum use: 80 ft AGL.
What are the A220 limitations on FPLN UPLINK? start learning		FPLN UPLINK is prohibited in flight; clear REQUEST PENDING before takeoff.
What is the normal engine cool-down requirement before shutdown? start learning		At/near IDLE (≤40% N1) for at least 3 cumulative minutes; 5 minutes recommended. Taxi time may count.
What waiting times apply when restoring aircraft power? start learning		Allow at least 15 s before a power-on; after a complete normal Power-Off, a minimum 60 s power-off period is recommended before restoring power.
What are Airbus takeoff maximum recommended crosswinds for RWYCC 6–1, and what does LOT OM-A prohibit? start learning		32/32/27/20/10/10 kt, gust included. LOT prohibits both takeoff and landing at RWYCC ≤1.
What happens if visual references are lost before versus after touchdown in LVO? start learning		After DH but before touchdown: go around. After touchdown: no go-around; continue the landing/rollout and monitor the autoland system.
What is the bleed/pack restoration timing after deicing/anti-icing? start learning		At least 1 minute after treatment completion, restore bleeds/equipment cooling to AUTO as applicable; 1 minute after bleeds AUTO, restore packs AUTO.
Are a go-around or touch-and-go permitted after thrust-reverser deployment? start learning		No. After reverser deployment a full-stop landing must be completed.
What vertical descent rates define a hard landing at different landing weights? start learning		>600 fpm at or below MLW; >360 fpm above MLW through MTOW. Other abnormal touchdown events (e.g. strikes or nosewheel-first touchdown) may also qualify.
What speed-management trap can occur after an FMS reset, and what should the crew do? start learning		FMS speed target may revert to approach speed; verify the target and select MAN SPD with the required speed if inappropriate.
[LOT OM-A] What takeoff thrust-reduction method is prohibited on a contaminated runway? start learning		Assumed Temperature/FLEX or equivalent thrust reduction is prohibited; a certified derated thrust rating may be used if permitted by performance and other limitations.
What are the Airbus maximum recommended landing crosswinds for RWYCC 6–2? start learning		29/29/27/20/10 kt. LOT prohibits landing at RWYCC ≤1.
What are LAND 2 minimum runway width and maximum airport pressure altitude? start learning		Minimum runway width 45 m; maximum autoland airport pressure altitude 8466 ft.
What are LAND 2 ILS glideslope and automation requirements? start learning		ILS GS 2.5°–3.25°; dual-engine operation; AP and AT required.
What autoland approach-speed correction is prescribed? start learning		AT use requires VREF+5 kt; up to another +5 kt for gust correction (half the gust), maximum total VREF+10 kt.
How must a CAT II APPR 2 approach be completed on the LOT aircraft without HUD? start learning		AP-coupled approach, disconnect AP by 80 ft AGL at the latest, and land manually. LAND 2 autoland is a separate procedure.
When is engagement of the engine starter on the ground prohibited? start learning		When indicated N2 is above 20%.
What are the maximum engine ground-operation wind components for engine start and ice shedding? start learning		Crosswind 43 kt and tailwind 18 kt, at 10 m tower height; other wind-zone limitations still apply.
What APU bleed-air selection is required during takeoff at OAT ≤15°C? start learning		APU BLEED OFF. If the APU is off, keeping its bleed switch in AUTO is acceptable under the Before Takeoff procedure.
What aircraft braking action is prohibited during towbarless towing? start learning		Use of aircraft brakes.
At what latitudes is FMS navigation prohibited? start learning		North of 73°N and south of 60°S.
May the FMS OPT ALT and MAX ALT predictions be used for flight planning? start learning		No. Their use for flight planning is prohibited.
What flight-deck printer operations are prohibited in flight? start learning		Printing WT & BAL, enroute charts and NOTAM charts.
When must TAWS TERR be inhibited at an airport absent from the TAWS database? start learning		For takeoff or landing within 15 NM of that airport.
How must a true heading be entered in the FMS? start learning		Use the xxxT format.
What are the PW1521G-3 main EGT and rotor-speed limits? start learning		Maximum EGT for engine start, takeoff and reverse: 1054°C; max continuous EGT: 1016°C; maximum N1 and N2: 100%.
What N1 limits apply during cold-engine warm-up by oil temperature? start learning		Below -40°C: start prohibited; below -6°C: IDLE only; -6°C to below 21°C: ≤30% N1; 21°C to below 49°C: ≤50% N1; ≥49°C: no oil-temperature N1 restriction.
What are the first three actions for unreliable airspeed? start learning		Autopilot disengage; autothrottle off; flight directors off.
For cockpit lithium-battery flames, who uses respiratory protection and extinguisher? start learning		PF uses oxygen mask; PM uses PBE and extinguisher.
What is the primary purpose of Operational Landing Distance (OLD)? start learning		Advisory in-flight landing-distance assessment.
When does the A220 fluid/snow contamination criterion generally apply? start learning		More than 25% of the relevant runway area covered by more than 3 mm.
What wet-runway crosswind limit applies with one thrust reverser inoperative? start learning		25 kt.
How are CTP selections normally shared? start learning		Each pilot performs selections on their own onside CTP, regardless of AP status.
Who makes FMS changes during taxi? start learning		The PM; the PF confirms the entries before execution.
When should non-normal procedure actions normally begin after takeoff or go-around? start learning		At or above 400 ft AAE, unless a critical action is required earlier and the flight path is safe.
What is the basic priority order for multiple procedures? start learning		Warning, warning follow-on, Normal Checklist, Caution, caution follow-on, subject to Captain's judgement and operational circumstances.
Which cockpit controls require an in-flight cross-check before operation? start learning		ENG RUN switches, thrust levers, all guarded switches, and any control requiring confirmation in the non-normal procedure.
What does FORDEC stand for? start learning		Facts, Options, Risks/Benefits, Decision, Execution, Check/Change.
What important data are not copied when COPY TO SEC is used? start learning		Performance data are not copied to the Secondary Flight Plan.
What is the preferred mode for a small altitude change within about 5,000 ft? start learning		(V)FLC is normally preferred to (V)VS because it provides a smoother altitude change while maintaining the speed target.
What must be considered when flying HDG with VNAV still active? start learning		VNAV may continue to respect FMS vertical constraints while within 10 NM of the FMS track or with track-angle error below 75°. If the FMS vertical profile is not intended, deselect VNAV and manage altitude constraints with the FCP.
How should the FMS normally be sequenced when radar-vectored toward final approach? start learning		Use Direct To to the appropriate approach waypoint and enter the inbound final approach course in the CRS field; do not use Direct To beyond the Final Descent Point.
What must be remembered after programming an FMS hold? start learning		The FMS may create a default hold rather than the charted hold. Verify the geometry and review SAFE: Speed, Altitude, Fuel and Expect further clearance.
How does the FMS treat holding for descent and fuel predictions? start learning		The number of circuits is unknown; after the holding fix sequences, the FMS assumes one holding pattern unless an EFC time is entered.
What are the A220 landing-gear speed limits? start learning		VLO extension 250 KIAS; VLO retraction 220 KIAS; VLE 250 KIAS.
What are the key VA restrictions? start learning		Rapid alternating inputs can be structurally hazardous at any speed; in Direct Mode, full control inputs/near-stall maneuvers must remain below VA.
When is ground engine ice shedding required and how is it performed? start learning		OAT ≤3°C with visible moisture; ≥60% N1 every ≤30 min, with the final run within 5 min before takeoff.
What applies when either A220 wing tank contains more than 2,830 kg? start learning		No unattended APU; start the left engine first. If center fuel <10,670 kg, transfer wing fuel to center until <2,830 kg.
Why are the first A220 Power-on actions memorized, and what are they? start learning		ECL is initially unavailable: PARK BRAKE ON; BATT 1 AUTO; BATT 2 AUTO; ECL on DU2.
What key external items are checked around the reversers and spoilers? start learning		TR/fan-cowl latches latched and flush; reversers stowed; MFS and ground spoilers flush with the wing.
When is cold-soak clear ice a concern on the A220 wing? start learning		Cold fuel can freeze moisture even above 0°C; check the upper wing when fuel ≤0°C with high humidity or visible moisture.
When and how is the A220 ice-detector test checked? start learning		First flight of the day; ICE caution appears during the test and DONE confirms completion.
What external-air pressure applies for an A220 engine start? start learning		38 psi recommended at sea level; 45 psi maximum.
How is the daily wing anti-ice test performed at or below 8,000 ft? start learning		Once daily; ≥30% N1 with dual bleed or ≥50% with single bleed; PASS confirms completion.
How is an autothrottle disconnect handled during the takeoff roll? start learning		<60 KIAS: abort. >60 KIAS: DERATE—match target N1; TO/TO FLEX—set thrust levers MAX.
What changes during a High Wind Takeoff? start learning		After stabilizing near 55% N1, set takeoff thrust at 20 kt; PM calls TWENTY KNOTS.
What are the LOT A220 maximum takeoff and landing weights? start learning		MTOW 63,049 kg; MLW 57,379 kg.
What are the recommended initial climb speeds? start learning		AEO: V2+10 KIAS. OEI: V2.
How is the in-flight wing anti-ice check performed during climb? start learning		TAT ≤15°C; below applicable altitude limits; maintain climb thrust and select WAI ON for 3 min.
How is the in-flight wing anti-ice check performed during descent? start learning		Below 31,000 ft with TAT ≤15°C and IDLE thrust; the low-altitude check below 19,000 ft is 2 min.
What bank limits apply at Green Dot? start learning		AEO: 30° to 31,500 ft, then 15°. OEI: 25°.
What FMS-to-chart final-path differences are acceptable? start learning		Vertical: 0.1°. Lateral: 1° normally; 3° for a conventional radio-NAVAID approach.
How is MDA treated during a CDFA? start learning		As a DA; without required visual reference at MDA, go around.
What are the key gates for GS/VGP intercept from above? start learning		Arm APPR/GS or VGP; FCP altitude ≥1,000 ft AAE; stabilize by 1,000 ft; use about 1,000–1,500 ft/min if needed.
How is automation normally used during an A220 circling approach? start learning		Use FPA to capture MDA; continue in HDG with AP and AT until ready to maneuver to final.
What are the normal A220 landing flap options? start learning		FLAP 4 normally; FLAP 5 may be used for a normal short-field landing.
What bank limits apply in landing configuration? start learning		At VREF: maximum 25°. At VREF+5: up to 30°.
What is the difference between SET and SELECT? start learning		SET changes a value without changing mode; SELECT changes, engages or disengages a mode.
What is the difference between GNSS jamming and spoofing? start learning		Jamming degrades or removes GNSS reception; spoofing produces erroneous GNSS data.
What are the first priorities when GNSS position becomes unreliable? start learning		Select HDG, notify ATC, inhibit TAWS TERR, then continue the READ & DO procedure, normally by PM.
What does the Clean Aircraft Concept permit regarding wing frost? start learning		Critical surfaces must be clean; up to 3.0 mm frost is permitted on the lower wing, but upper-wing frost must be removed.
What is the recommended response to predictive windshear? start learning		Takeoff below 80 kt: reject. Approach: go around.
What configuration and automation apply during reactive windshear escape? start learning		Keep gear/flaps unchanged initially; engaged AP/AT remain engaged. FMA: TO/WSHR on takeoff, GA/WSHR on approach.
What is the difference between NADP CLOSE-IN and DISTANT? start learning		CLOSE-IN: thrust reduction before acceleration. DISTANT: acceleration before thrust reduction.
When is EDM available and what does it preset? start learning		Above 25,000 ft; 15,000 ft, HDG, VMO−10/MMO−.02, AP engaged and AT at idle.
What is the A220 stall-recovery priority and sequence? start learning		Reduce AOA first: AP OFF → AT OFF → reduce AOA → wings level → thrust as required → SPOILER RET.
What are the key A220 upset-recovery priorities? start learning		Use the aircraft symbol, not FPV. If stalled, recover the stall first; in a nose-high upset, thrust reduction may help pitch down.
How is an A220 TCAS RA initially handled? start learning		AP OFF, both FDs OFF; AT may remain in SPD. Fly FPV into the RA zone; restore normal modes after CLEAR OF CONFLICT.
How is crew oxygen pressure displayed and what does 1050 psig mean? start learning		EICAS is temperature-corrected to 70°F/21°C; 1050 psig is the CREW OXY LO PRESS threshold, not dispatch minimum.
What crew oxygen pressure is required for two pilots? start learning		900 psig normally; 950 psig on mountain routes, where terrain prevents flight at or below 10,000 ft.
How is a go-around performed after MLG touchdown? start learning		Do not select TOGA. Use MAX thrust and manual flight, target about 10° pitch; re-engage AT only after selecting (V)FLC.
What are the key considerations for an overweight landing? start learning		Disconnect AP by 80 ft AGL and land manually; avoid excess speed and a prolonged flare.
What speed restrictions apply in EMER PWR ONLY/RAT operation? start learning		Initially ≤300 KIAS/M0.80; maintain ≥155 KIAS until landing assured. RAT GEN may be lost below 148 KIAS.
What does BATT EMER PWR ON imply? start learning		Batteries are the sole source for at least 5 minutes; if depleted, brakes are unavailable.
How do ground COWL and takeoff WING anti-ice thresholds differ? start learning		COWL: OAT ≤10°C. WING for takeoff: OAT ≤5°C, with the specified moisture/contamination conditions.
What are the standard airborne go-around flap, speed and bank targets? start learning		FLAP 4→2; FLAP 5→4. AEO: VGA and 30°. OEI: VAC and 20°.
What LAND 2 wind limits apply? start learning		CAT II/III: H25/X15/T10 kt. CAT I or better: H29/X24 demonstrated; tailwind limit 10 kt.
How is cold-weather thrust-reverser cycling performed after >120 min? start learning		-40 to -20°C: cycle twice, take off within 5 min. Below -40°C: cycle until deployment ≤2.5 s, then take off within 2 min.
How is OEI net level-off capability assessed for dispatch? start learning		Use a 1,000 ft obstacle/MEA margin; if net level-off weight is below planned TOW, reduce TOW or perform detailed driftdown.
How are STOP ECL and CONTINUE ECL used? start learning		STOP ECL for actions requiring both-pilot acknowledgement/check; CONTINUE ECL resumes the procedure.
How is tasksharing divided during an in-flight non-normal procedure? start learning		PF flies, navigates and communicates after procedure initiation; PM monitors and performs the ECL/QRH/OEB actions.
When should the next FLAP position normally be selected during approach deceleration? start learning		When available, at no less than the F-speed for the next configuration; with AT, preferably before reaching that F-speed and about 10 kt below VFE when possible.
What is the important speed-margin trap when extending to FLAP 2? start learning		F2 can be close to the FLAP 2 VFE of 210 KIAS; anticipate the deceleration and use gear/spoilers as required for energy management.
What is the initial technique after an engine failure during cruise? start learning		Confirm/set MCT, disconnect AT as required, select MAN SPD and initially Green Dot, select HDG as appropriate, determine OEI altitude, then set it and select FLC.
When is Green Dot versus M0.78/290 used during an OEI drift-down? start learning		Green Dot is used for obstacle strategy/best gradient; standard strategy uses M0.78/290 to remain in the stabilized windmill-relight envelope.
What is done near the end of a standard OEI drift-down? start learning		When descent rate becomes less than 500 ft/min, select V/S -500 ft/min and AT ON.
What speed-mode philosophy applies after an engine shutdown? start learning		Use MAN SPD and do not reselect FMS SPD while operating OEI unless the procedure later permits it.
When must an inoperative engine not be relit? start learning		When engine damage is suspected, after engine fire, or when a relight could reasonably cause a fire.
What are the key A220 single-engine relight envelopes? start learning		ATS: ≤250 KIAS, ≤27,000 ft crossbleed or ≤23,000 ft APU. Windmill: ≥250 KIAS and ≤27,000 ft. WAI OFF.
What should the crew do when a TCAS TA occurs? start learning		PF calls “TCAS, I have control,” prepares for an RA, but does not maneuver solely on the TA.
Which has priority during a TCAS RA: ATC clearance or the RA? start learning		Always follow the RA, even if it conflicts with ATC, crosses the intruder altitude or commands a climb above the aircraft ceiling.
How quickly should the aircraft respond to a corrective or strengthened/reversal TCAS RA? start learning		Initial corrective RA: within 5 s. Strengthened or reversal RA: within 2.5 s.
How is an IAS EFIS MISCOMPARE resolved using the ADS sources? start learning		Review all ADS sources: if three are consistent, select a valid source; if fewer than three are consistent, accomplish Unreliable Airspeed.
When may airspeed be considered reliable again during the Unreliable Airspeed procedure? start learning		Only when at least two ADS sources agree and the indication has been cross-checked against N1/thrust data.
What is the fundamental handling change in FBW Direct Mode? start learning		Normal envelope protection is unavailable; use small inputs. Pitch retains limited damping, while roll/yaw are more direct and stabilizer trim is manual.
How does pitch trim indication and operation change in Direct Mode? start learning		The trim switches command stabilizer movement directly and the trim-speed bug is not displayed; confirm trim by stabilizer position/movement.
What are the immediate priorities in the generic Smoke/Fire/Fumes procedure? start learning		Protect the crew if required, establish communication, plan to land at the nearest suitable airport, and isolate smoke circulation/sources as directed.
When is the Smoke or Fumes Removal procedure used and what is its basic strategy? start learning		When smoke/fumes become the greatest threat: EMER DEPRESS ON, descend to 10,000 ft or lowest safe altitude, PACK FLOW HI if available, and assess smoke evacuation.
Should passenger oxygen masks normally be deployed during a smoke/fire procedure? start learning		No. Passenger masks should not be deployed for smoke/fire itself; they may be required later for a depressurization-related condition.
What is the basic concept of A220 Graphical Flight Planning? start learning		MAP database symbols are smart objects that can modify the FMS route; a white dotted route is MOD, and EXEC makes it ACT/magenta.

FCOM VOL 2 (Type Rating)

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