05 IFR Procedures

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Question English Answer English
What is an Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) flight?
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A flight conducted in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules.
What is an instrument approach procedure (IAP)?
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A published series of predetermined manoeuvres providing obstacle protection from the initial approach to landing or missed approach.
What are the main segments of an instrument approach?
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Initial, intermediate, final and missed approach.
What is an IAF?
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Initial Approach Fix: the fix where the initial approach segment begins.
What is an IF?
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Intermediate Fix: the fix associated with the start of the intermediate approach segment.
What is a FAF?
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Final Approach Fix: the fix from which the final approach segment of many 2D procedures begins.
What is a FAP?
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Final Approach Point: the point where the nominal vertical path of a 3D approach is intercepted.
What is a MAPt?
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Missed Approach Point: the point at or before which the prescribed missed approach is initiated when required.
Are FAF and MAPt necessarily at the same location?
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No. They define different points within the approach procedure.
What is the purpose of the initial approach segment?
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To position the aircraft for the intermediate segment with required obstacle clearance.
What is the purpose of the intermediate approach segment?
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To align and configure the aircraft for the final approach.
What is the purpose of the final approach segment?
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To provide the path from the FAF/FAP toward landing or the MAPt.
What is the purpose of the missed approach procedure?
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To provide obstacle-protected transition from the approach to a safe altitude or holding point.
What is a straight-in approach?
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An instrument approach followed by landing on a runway aligned with the final approach course.
What is a circling approach?
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An instrument approach followed by visual manoeuvring to a runway not suitable for straight-in landing.
What is a SID?
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A published IFR departure route linking a runway or aerodrome to the en-route structure.
What is a STAR?
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A published IFR arrival route linking the en-route structure with an approach procedure.
Why are SID and STAR restrictions operationally important?
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They provide traffic sequencing, terrain clearance and predictable flight paths.
Does ATC clearance automatically cancel published SID/STAR restrictions?
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No. Restrictions remain unless explicitly cancelled, replaced or otherwise specified.
What is an altitude constraint?
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A published or cleared altitude that must be met at a specified point.
What does “at or above” mean on an altitude constraint?
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The aircraft must cross the fix at no lower than the stated altitude.
What does “at or below” mean?
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The aircraft must cross the fix at no higher than the stated altitude.
What does an altitude window mean?
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The aircraft must cross between the published upper and lower limits.
What is MSA?
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Minimum Sector Altitude: an emergency-use altitude providing at least 1,000 ft obstacle clearance in a defined area.
What radius is normally associated with an MSA?
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25 NM from the specified navigation reference, unless otherwise stated.
Does MSA necessarily guarantee navigation signal coverage?
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No. Its primary purpose is obstacle clearance.
What is TAA?
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Terminal Arrival Altitude: an obstacle-clearance altitude facilitating direct arrival to an RNAV approach.
What is MEA?
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Minimum En-route Altitude: the lowest published en-route altitude providing required obstacle clearance and navigation coverage.
What is OCA?
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Obstacle Clearance Altitude: the lowest altitude used in establishing compliance with obstacle-clearance criteria.
What is OCH?
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Obstacle Clearance Height: OCA expressed as a height above the relevant reference datum.
Is OCA/H itself necessarily the operational minimum used by the crew?
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No. Operational DA/H or MDA/H cannot normally be lower than the applicable OCA/H.
What is DA?
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Decision Altitude: an altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated if required visual reference is not established.
What is DH?
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Decision Height: the corresponding height above the specified reference datum.
What is MDA?
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Minimum Descent Altitude: an altitude below which descent is not permitted without required visual reference.
What is MDH?
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Minimum Descent Height: MDA expressed as a height above the specified datum.
What is the key operational difference between DA and MDA?
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DA is a decision point passed dynamically; MDA is traditionally an altitude not to be descended below.
Under current EASA methodology, what minima are used for a 3D approach?
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DA/H.
Under current EASA methodology, what minima are used for a 2D approach flown using CDFA?
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DA/H derived from the applicable procedure minima.
What minima are used for a 2D approach not flown using CDFA?
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MDA/H.
What is a 2D instrument approach operation?
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An approach using lateral navigation guidance only.
What is a 3D instrument approach operation?
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An approach using both lateral and vertical navigation guidance.
What is a Type A instrument approach operation?
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An instrument approach with DH or MDH at or above 250 ft.
What is a Type B instrument approach operation?
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An instrument approach with DH below 250 ft.
How is Type B subdivided under current EASA terminology?
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CAT I, CAT II and CAT III.
What defines CAT I in the EASA classification?
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DH ≥200 ft and either VIS ≥800 m or RVR ≥550 m.
What defines CAT II in the EASA classification?
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100 ft ≤ DH <200 ft and RVR ≥300 m.
What defines CAT III in the current EASA classification?
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DH <100 ft or no DH, with RVR <300 m or no RVR limitation.
Does current EASA operational classification still divide CAT III into IIIA, IIIB and IIIC?
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No. Current EASA uses CAT III as one category.
What is CDFA?
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Continuous Descent Final Approach: a continuous descent technique for flying the final segment of a 2D/NPA procedure.
What is the principal objective of CDFA?
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To avoid level flight near minima and provide a stable, constant descent path.
Why is CDFA safer than the traditional dive-and-drive technique?
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It reduces level-offs, configuration changes and CFIT risk close to the ground.
Under EASA CAT operations, should NPA procedures normally be flown using CDFA?
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Yes, unless another technique has been specifically approved.
From where is CDFA normally initiated?
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At or above the FAF altitude/height on the nominal final descent profile.
For a straight-in CDFA, where does the continuous descent concept extend to?
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Approximately 50 ft above the threshold or the start of the flare.
Does CDFA change the obstacle-protected design of the published procedure?
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No. It is a flight technique applied to the published procedure.
What is a step-down fix?
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A fix permitting descent to a lower minimum altitude after it has been positively identified.
Can a step-down altitude be ignored because the FMS shows a smooth vertical path?
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No. Published altitude restrictions remain controlling.
What is a stabilised approach?
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An approach meeting the operator’s defined criteria for path, speed, configuration, thrust and rate of descent.
Are exact stabilised-approach criteria universal?
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No. The operator defines them in the Operations Manual.
What does EASA require generally regarding approach technique?
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Approach operations should be flown as stabilised approaches unless specifically approved otherwise.
Why should a high expected rate of descent be briefed?
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It increases workload and may threaten stabilised-approach criteria.
What rate of descent does EASA specifically highlight for prior briefing?
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More than 1,000 ft/min.
What is the approximate vertical gradient of a 3° glide path?
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About 5.2%.
How many feet per NM does a 3° path represent?
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Approximately 318 ft/NM; 300 ft/NM is a useful mental approximation.
What is the quick rule for vertical speed on a 3° path?
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Groundspeed × 5 gives an approximate rate of descent in ft/min.
At 120 kt GS, what is approximately required for a 3° path?
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About 600 ft/min.
At 150 kt GS, what is approximately required for a 3° path?
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About 750 ft/min.
At 180 kt GS, what is approximately required for a 3° path?
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About 900 ft/min.
What happens to required vertical speed if groundspeed increases?
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It increases proportionally for the same flight-path angle.
Why can a strong tailwind make an approach difficult to regain vertically?
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High groundspeed gives less time per NM to lose altitude.
What is the 3:1 descent-planning rule?
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About 3 NM are required for every 1,000 ft of descent on roughly a 3° path.
Approximately how far is required to lose 3,000 ft on a 3° path?
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About 9–10 NM.
What is the difference between descent angle and descent gradient?
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Angle is measured in degrees; gradient is vertical distance divided by horizontal distance.
What is a 5.2% gradient approximately in degrees?
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About 3°.
What is the standard ICAO missed-approach design climb gradient?
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2.5%, unless a higher gradient is published.
If a higher missed-approach gradient is required, where should it be found?
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On the published instrument approach chart.
What should a crew confirm when higher missed-approach gradients are published?
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That aircraft performance can meet the required gradient under expected conditions.
When does obstacle protection for the published missed approach assume the turn begins?
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Not before the published turning point or applicable procedure point.
Why can an early turn during a missed approach be hazardous?
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It may take the aircraft outside the protected obstacle-clearance area.
When should the missed approach be flown?
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Whenever required visual reference is not obtained, the approach becomes unstable, or continuation is unsafe.
If visual reference is lost after descending below minima, what is required?
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A prompt go-around.
Does initiating a go-around mean immediately turning toward the next missed-approach fix?
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Not necessarily; first follow the published missed-approach track and turn constraints.
Why must the missed approach be briefed before commencing the approach?
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It is a high-workload manoeuvre that may be required with little warning.
What is an approach ban?
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A restriction on continuing an approach when reported visibility or controlling RVR is below the applicable minimum.
Under EASA CAT rules, does reported RVR/VIS below minima itself prohibit beginning the approach?
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No. The regulatory restriction concerns continuation beyond the specified point.
If controlling RVR/VIS is below minima, below what point may an EASA CAT approach not normally continue?
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Past 1,000 ft above aerodrome elevation.
What applies when DH or MDH is above 1,000 ft above aerodrome elevation?
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The approach may not continue into the final approach segment when RVR/VIS is below minima.
What if RVR/VIS deteriorates below minima after passing the approach-ban point?
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The approach may continue to DA/H or MDA/H, subject to the applicable rules.
What is normally the controlling RVR for an aeroplane approach?
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Touchdown-zone RVR.
If touchdown-zone RVR is not reported, what may become controlling under EASA AMC?
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Midpoint RVR.
What must exist at DA/H to continue below it when visual reference is required?
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The required visual reference for the intended operation and runway.
Must required visual reference merely appear momentarily at minima?
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No. It must be established and maintained for continued landing.
What is the basic decision at DA/H?
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If required visual reference is not established, execute the missed approach.
Can the aircraft physically descend slightly below DA during a go-around initiated at DA?
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Yes. DA is a decision point; aircraft inertia means some altitude loss may occur during transition.
Why is an MDA concept different from DA?
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MDA is a hard altitude floor in non-CDFA operation and must not be descended below without visual reference.
What is circling?
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A visual manoeuvre after an instrument approach to position for landing on a different or insufficiently aligned runway.
Is circling an instrument or visual manoeuvre?
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The circling phase is visual, although it follows an instrument approach.
What must be maintained during circling?
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Required visual reference with the runway environment while remaining within the protected area.
What should be done if visual reference is lost during circling?
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Execute the prescribed circling missed-approach procedure.
Why are circling minima normally higher than straight-in minima?
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Additional obstacle clearance is required during visual manoeuvring around the aerodrome.
What determines the applicable circling aircraft category?
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Aircraft approach speed category and the speed actually required for the manoeuvre.
What is category A by VAT?
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Less than 91 kt.
What is category B by VAT?
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91–120 kt.
What is category C by VAT?
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121–140 kt.
What is category D by VAT?
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141–165 kt.
What is category E by VAT?
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166–210 kt.
If circling speed exceeds the limit of the normal aircraft category, what should be considered?
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Use of the minima/protection for the appropriate higher category.
Why does circling speed affect protected-area size?
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Higher speed produces a larger turn radius.
What is a holding pattern?
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A predetermined manoeuvre keeping an aircraft within specified airspace while awaiting further clearance.
What are the two basic legs of a conventional hold?
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Inbound and outbound legs connected by 180° turns.
What is a standard holding pattern?
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A hold with right turns unless otherwise published or instructed.
What is a non-standard holding pattern?
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A hold with left turns.
What are the three conventional holding entries?
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Direct, parallel and offset/teardrop.
Are holding-entry sectors absolute manoeuvring requirements?
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They are recommended entry methods; safe containment and operator procedures remain controlling.
What is the purpose of wind correction in a hold?
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To maintain the protected holding pattern and correct inbound track.
On which leg is holding timing primarily adjusted?
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The outbound leg, to achieve the required inbound timing.
What is the usual inbound holding time at or below FL140?
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1 minute unless otherwise published.
What is the usual inbound holding time above FL140?
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1.5 minutes unless otherwise published.
If a hold is defined by DME distances, what controls the outbound limit?
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The published DME distance rather than timing.
What must always take priority over generic holding-speed memory values?
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The speed published on the chart, ATC restriction and applicable aircraft/operator limits.
Why is holding at high TAS operationally important?
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Higher TAS increases turn radius and the airspace required.
What happens to turn radius in a hold as TAS increases?
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It increases.
Why may bank or turn-rate limits matter in holding?
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They determine whether the aircraft remains within expected protected geometry.
What is the protected side of a hold?
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The side containing the holding pattern and the main obstacle-protected area.
Why should an aircraft avoid unnecessary excursions onto the non-holding side?
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Obstacle-protection margins are smaller there.
What is procedure turn or course reversal designed to achieve?
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To reverse direction and establish the aircraft inbound on the final/intermediate approach course.
Can every published approach use any course-reversal technique?
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No. The chart and procedure coding define the authorised manoeuvre.
What is a racetrack procedure?
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A course-reversal procedure resembling a holding pattern used to establish the aircraft inbound.
What is a base turn procedure?
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A specified outbound track followed by a turn to intercept the inbound track.
What does “NoPT” or equivalent procedure indication mean conceptually?
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A procedure turn or course reversal is not required from that arrival route.
Why should pilots not improvise course reversals?
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Obstacle protection assumes the published procedure geometry.
What is an ATC radar vector to final intended to achieve?
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Position the aircraft to intercept the final approach course safely.
Does an ATC vector remove the crew’s responsibility for altitude awareness?
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No.
Why should minimum cleared altitude and terrain be continuously monitored under vectors?
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Vectoring does not remove CFIT risk.
What is the purpose of an approach briefing?
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To build a shared mental model of the approach, threats, minima and missed approach.
What are essential elements of an approach briefing?
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Procedure, runway, minima, navigation setup, key constraints, threats and missed approach.
Why should the missed approach altitude be checked carefully?
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A wrongly set altitude can create an immediate vertical-path or ATC conflict during go-around.
Why should approach minima be independently cross-checked?
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Minima errors can directly compromise terrain clearance and landing legality.
Why should final approach course and runway heading be compared?
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A significant difference may indicate an offset approach or wrong procedure/runway selection.
Why should approach navigation sources be identified before final approach?
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Correct source selection and monitoring are essential for valid guidance.
What is the operational significance of a published minimum temperature on an LNAV/VNAV approach?
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Baro-VNAV vertical guidance may not be authorised below it without approved compensation.
Can an advisory FMS vertical path convert an LNAV approach into a 3D approach?
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No. The published approach type and approved guidance determine the operation.
Does a synthetic or advisory glide path change published LNAV minima?
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No.
Why must published altitude constraints still be respected when using VNAV?
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VNAV guidance does not supersede procedure obstacle-clearance restrictions.
What is the main threat of descending early below a published segment altitude?
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Loss of guaranteed obstacle clearance.
What is the main threat of remaining high until very late in the approach?
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An unstable approach requiring excessive descent rate or configuration changes.
What is the preferred response to an approach that cannot be stabilised?
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Go around rather than attempt to salvage it close to the ground.
What is the fundamental purpose of IFR procedural discipline?
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To keep the aircraft inside the obstacle-protected and traffic-managed flight path.

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