06 Air Law & Airspace

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Question English Answer English
What is the PIC’s fundamental legal authority and responsibility?
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The PIC is responsible for operation of the aircraft and has final authority over its disposition; deviation from the rules is permitted when absolutely necessary in the interests of safety.
Which airspace classes are controlled airspace?
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Classes A, B, C, D and E.
How does separation work in Classes A, B and C?
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A: IFR only, all traffic separated. B: IFR and VFR, all traffic separated. C: IFR separated from IFR and VFR; VFR separated from IFR but not from other VFR.
How does separation work in Classes D, E, F and G?
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D: IFR separated from IFR only. E: IFR separated from IFR only; VFR is not controlled. F provides advisory service to participating IFR; G provides no ATC separation.
In which classes do both IFR and VFR require an ATC clearance?
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B, C and D; Class A permits IFR only and also requires clearance.
What is the key operational difference of Class E?
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IFR requires ATC clearance and is separated from IFR; VFR normally requires neither clearance nor continuous radio and is not separated by ATC.
Is Class E permitted as a control zone under SERA?
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No.
What airspace classification applies above FL195 under SERA?
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Class C.
What is the normal SERA speed-limit logic below 10,000 ft?
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250 kt IAS applies to VFR in Class C and to all flights in Classes D, E, F and G, unless an approved exception applies.
What are the standard VMC minima at or above 10,000 ft?
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8 km flight visibility and 1,500 m horizontally / 1,000 ft vertically from cloud.
What are the standard VMC minima below 10,000 ft but above the low-level band?
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5 km flight visibility and 1,500 m horizontally / 1,000 ft vertically from cloud.
What are the standard low-level VMC minima in Classes F and G?
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5 km visibility, clear of cloud and with the surface in sight, subject to authorised reductions.
What defines the low-level VMC band?
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At or below 3,000 ft AMSL or 1,000 ft above terrain, whichever is higher.
What are the normal VFR altitude limits under SERA?
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VFR is normally prohibited above FL195; specific authorised operations may be permitted up to FL285.
Why is VFR authorisation above FL285 normally unavailable in RVSM airspace?
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Because 1,000 ft vertical separation is applied above FL290.
What are the basic Special VFR requirements for an aeroplane?
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ATC clearance within a CTR, clear of cloud, surface in sight, flight visibility at least 1,500 m and speed 140 kt IAS or less.
What aerodrome weather prevents ATC from issuing normal SVFR take-off/landing/circuit clearance to an aeroplane?
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Ground visibility below 1,500 m or ceiling below 600 ft.
What are the standard VFR minimum-height rules?
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Over congested areas: at least 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m; elsewhere normally at least 500 ft above ground/water or the highest obstacle within 500 ft.
If no State IFR minimum altitude is published, what obstacle clearance applies?
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At least 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 km over mountainous/high terrain; 1,000 ft elsewhere.
Does entering VMC automatically justify cancelling IFR?
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No. IFR should only be cancelled when continued flight in uninterrupted VMC is intended and expected.
Can ATC request or encourage a pilot to cancel IFR?
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No; cancellation must be initiated by the pilot.
What is the standard phrase for cancelling IFR?
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“CANCELLING MY IFR FLIGHT.”
What are transition altitude, transition level and transition layer?
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TA: at/below it vertical position is expressed as altitude; TL: lowest usable flight level above it; transition layer: airspace between TA and TL.
What is the basic semicircular cruising-level rule?
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Track 000°–179°: odd IFR levels; 180°–359°: even IFR levels. VFR uses the corresponding levels plus 500 ft.
When do cruising-level rules give way to another level?
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When ATC clearance or published procedures specify otherwise.
What is an RMZ and what does it require?
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A Radio Mandatory Zone requires the prescribed radio equipment, continuous listening watch and required two-way communication.
What should an initial call before entering an RMZ contain?
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Station, callsign, aircraft type, position, level, intentions and any additionally required information.
What is a TMZ?
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A Transponder Mandatory Zone requiring an operating pressure-altitude-reporting transponder, normally Mode A/C or Mode S, unless alternative provisions are published.
Where are RMZ/TMZ requirements found?
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In the applicable AIP.
When is an ATS flight plan fundamentally required?
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For flights receiving ATC service, IFR in advisory airspace, international crossings unless otherwise agreed, designated routes/areas and night flights leaving the vicinity of an aerodrome.
What are the current standard SERA flight-plan submission times?
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Not more than 120 h before EOBT; normally at least 3 h before EOBT if potentially subject to ATFM, 60 min for other applicable flights, or 10 min before the relevant entry/crossing point when filed in flight.
Can a flight plan cover only part of a flight?
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Yes.
What should a pilot do if an ATC clearance cannot be safely complied with?
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Inform ATC and obtain an amended clearance; safety takes precedence over accepting an unsuitable clearance.
Does an ATC clearance remove the PIC’s responsibility for collision avoidance and safe operation?
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No.
What is the basic right-of-way rule for aircraft approaching head-on?
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Both alter heading to the right.
What is the basic right-of-way rule for converging aircraft at approximately the same level?
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The aircraft that has the other on its right gives way.
What is the basic overtaking rule?
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The aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way; the overtaking aircraft keeps clear, normally by altering to the right.
What is the basic landing priority rule?
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Aircraft landing or on final have priority over aircraft in flight or operating on the ground; an aircraft making an emergency landing has priority over all others.
What are the key emergency SSR codes?
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7500 unlawful interference; 7600 radio failure; 7700 emergency.
What are the normal SERA conspicuity SSR codes when no discrete code is assigned?
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7000 when not receiving ATS; 2000 when receiving ATS unless another code is prescribed or assigned.
When should IDENT normally be selected?
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Only when requested by ATS.
What is the fundamental difference between prohibited, restricted and danger areas?
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Prohibited: flight is forbidden; restricted: permitted only under specified conditions; danger: hazardous activity may exist but flight is not necessarily prohibited.

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